Can someone elaborate on Book of John Chap 1 (re: language) - U2 Feedback

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Old 05-21-2002, 08:10 AM   #1
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Can someone elaborate on Book of John Chap 1 (re: language)

I think this is the first time I'm really looking at this biblical passage in-depth. I'd like to find out more in particular about the "Word". I understand it is translated from the Greek "logos" and doesn't really mean "word"/command of God, but something deeper and more difficult to explain in English. Other interpretations say that the "Word" is Jesus the Christ.

[edit:] Anyway, anyone out there know exactly what "logos" means? And why, of all words, was "Word" chosen to interpret "logos"? From what I've read so far about the definition of "logos", the term "Word" seems... misleading. Did bible translators mean for "Word" to be synonymous with God's communication with Man? Take a paragraph or more to translate it, I don't mind.

A friend of mine suggested looking up the word "rhema" in relation to this question. What is your understanding of "rhema"?

Thanks, folks.

forayer

[This message has been edited by foray (edited 05-21-2002).]
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Old 05-22-2002, 09:15 AM   #2
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Maybe if you move this to The Goal is Soul forum you will get more response.
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Old 06-03-2002, 12:01 AM   #3
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Re: Can someone elaborate on Book of John Chap 1 (re: language)

Logos is one of those words that is hard to translate directly because the definition presupposes knowledge of the original language. Don't you love Greek?

In any case, It's used to describe the principle in Greek thought that there is a universal divine reason, exsistent in nature, but still above/transcending all oppositions and problems throughout cosmos and humanity. It is everlasting and unchanging truth exsisting at the time of creation. Any individual who seeks it will find it (seek and ye shall find). It is revelatory, unifying and liberating, reconciling human and divine. Manifest in Christ.

On a side note it usually carries with it two disctinctions:
1) Human Reason (the way our minds rationally try to attain reason and understanding)
2) Universal Intelligence (the force governing and revealing (the Divine))

A simple definition would be rational Divine intelligence.

So in the beginning was Divine Intelligence/Reason and the D.I. was with God and the D.I. was God. And it was made manifest...

Did that make any sense?

The reason (I would assume) "word" was chosen would be because of the revelatory nature of "logos". Still, I think at least the recent translators should provide footnotes.

And I believe the simplest definition of rhema is spoken word... as opposed to logos which is often translated as written word

I don't know if that helps, but I hope so...
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Old 06-05-2002, 03:53 AM   #4
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brunerhyme, that helps tremendously, thank you.

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Old 06-05-2002, 11:18 PM   #5
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Quote:
Originally posted by foray
brunerhyme, that helps tremendously, thank you.

foray
No problem, glad to help.
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